Delhi Judiciary Prelims 2019

Delhi Judiciary (DJS) Prelims2019199 questionsPrevious year paper

You'll attempt 10 questions with instant scoring and explanations at the end. (189 more in the full paper.)

Sample questions from Delhi Judiciary Prelims 2019

The first 10 questions of this Delhi Judiciary (DJS) Prelims paper, with answers and explanations.

  1. Q1. Alibi is governed by

    • A. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    • B. Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    • C. Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    • D. Section 12 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    Reveal answer

    Answer: C — Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act.

  2. Q2. Communications "without Prejudice" are protected by

    • A. Section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    • B. Section 22 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    • C. Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    • D. Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    Reveal answer

    Answer: C — Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act.

  3. Q3. Under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act.

    • A. The Whole statement is admissible
    • B. Only the portion of the statement which leads to the discovery is admissible
    • C. Both the (a) and (b) are admissible
    • D. None of the above are admissible
    Reveal answer

    Answer: B — Only the portion of the statement which leads to the discovery is admissible

  4. Q4. A dying declaration to be admissible must be made to a

    • A. Magistrate
    • B. Doctor
    • C. Police Officer
    • D. All these
    Reveal answer

    Answer: D — All these

  5. Q5. The opinion of an Expert is relevant under

    • A. Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act.
    • B. Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
    • C. Section 47 of the Indian Evidence Act
    • D. Section 48 of the Indian Evidence Act
    Reveal answer

    Answer: A — Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act.

  6. Q6. Burden of proof is lightened by

    • A. Presumptions
    • B. Admission
    • C. Estoppel
    • D. All these
    Reveal answer

    Answer: D — All these

  7. Q7. Legal Advisor

    • A. Can disclose the professional Communications after death of his client
    • B. Can disclose the professional Communications after the relationship with the client has ended.
    • C. Can disclose professional communications if made in furtherance of any illegal purpose.
    • D. Can disclose the professional communications in all the above instances.
    Reveal answer

    Answer: C — Can disclose professional communications if made in furtherance of any illegal purpose.

  8. Q8. Power of the court to suo motu examine any person at any stage is under

    • A. Section 163 of the Indian Evidence Act
    • B. Section 164 of the Indian Evidence Act
    • C. Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act
    • D. Section 167 of the Indian Evidence Act
    Reveal answer

    Answer: C — Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act

  9. Q9. Under section 166 of the Indian Evidence Act, the tenant is estopped from denying the title of the landlord.

    • A. During the continuance of the tenancy.
    • B. Before creation of tenancy.
    • C. After surrender of possession
    • D. All these
    Reveal answer

    Answer: A — During the continuance of the tenancy.

  10. Q10. A fact section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act means and includes

    • A. Anything capable of being perceived by the senses.
    • B. State of things capable of being perceived by the senses.
    • C. Relation of things capable of being perceived by the senses.
    • D. All of these
    Reveal answer

    Answer: D — All of these

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