UP Prelims Law 2023 Set C

UP Judiciary (UP PCS-J) Prelims — Law2023150 questionsPrevious year paper

You'll attempt 10 questions with instant scoring and explanations at the end. (140 more in the full paper.)

Sample questions from UP Prelims Law 2023 Set C

The first 10 questions of this UP Judiciary (UP PCS-J) Prelims — Law paper, with answers and explanations.

  1. Q1. Presumption as to electronic record of five year old is

    • A. Presumption of Fact
    • B. Presumption of Law
    • C. Conclusive proof
    • D. Presumption of Fact and Law
    Reveal answer

    Answer: A — Presumption of Fact

  2. Q2. Which Section of the CPC prohibits arrest or detention of woman in the execution of a decree of money?

    • A. Section 60
    • B. Section 55
    • C. Section 56
    • D. Section 59
    Reveal answer

    Answer: C — Section 56

  3. Q3. Who is given protection from arrest under Section 45 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973?

    • A. Members of armed forces
    • B. Members of Parliament
    • C. Judicial Officers
    • D. President of India
    Reveal answer

    Answer: A — Members of armed forces

  4. Q4. Match List-I with List-II - List I: (A) Interpretation Clause (B) When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant (C) Burden of Proof (D) Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction --- List II: (1) Section 6 Indian Evidence Act (2) Section 105 Indian Evidence Act (3) Section 11 Indian Evidence Act (4) Section 3 Indian Evidence Act

    • A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    • B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    • C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    • D. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    Reveal answer

    Answer: A — A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

  5. Q5. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act 1872 is related with Presumption as to electronic agreements?

    • A. Section 85C
    • B. Section 81A
    • C. Section 88A
    • D. Section 85A
    Reveal answer

    Answer: D — Section 85A

  6. Q6. Match List-I with List-II - List I: (A) Fraudulent transfer (B) Election when necessary (C) Rule against perpetuity (D) Conditional transfer --- List II: (1) Section 14 TPA (2) Section 35 TPA (3) Section 25 TPA (4) Section 53 TPA

    • A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    • B. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    • C. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
    • D. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
    Reveal answer

    Answer: D — A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

  7. Q7. Match List-I with List-II - List I: (A) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act (B) Section 85 of the Indian Evidence Act (C) Section 45A of the Indian Evidence Act (D) Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act --- List II: (1) Opinion of Examiner on Electronic Evidence (2) Admission in Civil cases when relevant (3) Presumption as to Power of Attorney (4) Expert opinion

    • A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    • B. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
    • C. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    • D. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    Reveal answer

    Answer: C — A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

  8. Q8. Which of the following case is related to the defence of necessity?

    • A. Case of McNaughten
    • B. R vs Dudley and Stephen
    • C. DPP vs Beard
    • D. R vs Lipman
    Reveal answer

    Answer: B — R vs Dudley and Stephen

  9. Q9. Consider the following activities and arrange them in chronological ascending order as per relevant Sections of IPC - I. Sedition II. House Trespass III. Communication made in good faith IV. Public Nuisance

    • A. III, I, IV, II
    • B. IV, II, I, III
    • C. III, IV, I, II
    • D. I, III, II, IV
    Reveal answer

    Answer: A — III, I, IV, II

  10. Q10. Assertion (A): Invitation to make tenders is not an offer. Reason (R): A tender in response to such invitation is an offer.

    • A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    • B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    • C. R is true but A is false
    • D. A is true but R is false
    Reveal answer

    Answer: B — Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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